What role does the stomach play in feelings of hungerWhat role does the stomach play in feelings of hunger

Feb 15, 2024

QUESTION 1 : _____ studies provide more in-depth developmental information.

a. Experimental

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b. Follow-up

c. Longitudinal

d. Cohort-intensive

QUESTION 2 :  Which of the following is NOT a limitation of longitudinal studies?

a. Time and money

b. “”Generalizability””

c. Self-selected sample bias

d. Cohort effects

QUESTION 3 :  “”Generalizability”” can be a problem in what kind(s) of study/studies?

a. Cross-sectional

b. Longitudinal

c. a nor b

d. a and b

QUESTION 4 :  Which of the following behaviors is NOT influenced by culture?

a. Fifteen-year-old Chou is cooperative and respectful toward his grandparents.

b. Five-year-old Kim believes that her father is just showing his love and concern when he beats her with a switch for not completing her chores.

c. Sixteen-year-old Brant enjoys lively debates with his history teacher.

d. Seventeen-month-old Zahra tried to climb the stairs and fell off the first step.

QUESTION 5 : Which of the following is TRUE about conception?

a. It is the fertilization of the female egg by the male sperm.

b. The new cell is called an embryo.

c. The blastocyst is no larger than the period at the end of this sentence.

d. All of these options are true

QUESTION 6 : Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched?

a. Embryonic period: development of major body organs

b. Conception: development of blastocyst

c. Germinal period: ovulation and implantation

d. Fetal period: rapid weight gain and “”detailing”” of body organs and systems

QUESTION 7 : The use of _____ during pregnancy is most associated with premature birth, low-birth-weight infants, and fetal death.

a. nicotine

b. caffeine

c. aspirin

d. all of these options
QUESTION 8 : Teratogens are _____ that can cause birth defects.

a. DNA fragments

b. environmental agents

c. recessive genes

d. dominant genes

QUESTION 9 : _____ is a feeling of fullness that has an effect on the perception of hunger.

a. Insatiety

b. Protrudation


d. Grandiosity

QUESTION 10 : The heat generated in response to food ingestion is called _____.

a. satiation

b. dehydration

c. thermogenesis

d. thermolosis

QUESTION 11 : The _____ hypothalamus signals an animal to start eating, whereas the _____ hypothalamus signals the animal to stop eating.

a) lateral; ventromedial

b) ventro; medial

c) ventromedial; lateral

d) medial; ventro

a. lateral; ventromedial

b. ventro; medial

c. ventromedial; lateral

d. medial; ventro
QUESTION 12 : All other factors being equal, which of the following persons is MOST likely to acquire an HIV infection?

a. Marci, who just donated blood

b. Rami, who engages in brief deep-throat kissing with her life partner without using a dental dam

c. Franco, who works at a hospice center for AIDS patients

d. None of these people is more likely than the others to acquire an HIV infection

QUESTION 13 : Which of the following is TRUE regarding rape?

a. Women can’t be raped against their will; and secretly want to be raped.

b. A man cannot be raped by a woman.

c. Men have little control over their biologically overpowering sex drive.

d. All of these options are myths about rape.

QUESTION 14 : According to the cognitive theory of motivation, _____ influence our goal-directed behavior.

a. attributions and expectancies

b. expectancies and internal needs

c. internal needs and attributions

d. attributions, expectancies, and internal needs

QUESTION 15 :  According to the cognitive theory of motivation, which of the following students is MOST likely to study hard for the next psychology exam?

a. Sasha believes she earned an “”A”” on this exam because the questions were easy.

b. Endora believes she is a witch and can get whatever she wants by waving her arms and casting a spell.

c. Martino believes he can bring his “”C’ up to an “”B”” or “”A”” next time.

d. Clemy believes he studied as hard as he could for this exam and is very discouraged that he only got a “”D.””

QUESTION 16 : The theory that some motives have to be satisfied before a person can advance to fulfilling higher motives is based on _____.

a. Freud’s psychosexual stages of development

b. Kohlberg’s moral stages of development

c. Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development

d. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

QUESTION 17 : According to _____ theory, basic survival and security needs must be satisfied before one can move on to such higher needs as self-actualization.

a. evolutionary

b. instinct

c. Maslow’s

d. Wiener’s

QUESTION 18 : According to Maslow, belonging and self-actualization are _____ needs, and will be satisfied after physiological and safety needs.

a. essential

b. primary

c. higher-level

d. optional

QUESTION 19 : According to Maslow’s view of motivation, if you haven’t eaten all day, your thoughts will be MOST focused on your _____.

a. self-esteem

b. physical safety

c. physiological needs

d. sense of belonging

QUESTION 20 :  The study of age-related changes in behavior and mental processes throughout the lifespan is called _____.

a. thanatology

b. neo-gerontology

c. developmental psychology

d. longitudinal psychology

QUESTION 21 : Developmental psychology _____.

a. examines growth, maturation, early experiences, and various stages of cognitive, social, and physical development

b. uses a learning theory approach that suggests nature is more important in development than nurture

c. avoids controversial issues by focusing only on what can be proven through research

d. all of these options

QUESTION 22 : Assad and Juana believe in stimulating their new baby’s senses by playing and singing to her. They also believe it is important to reinforce her curiosity and her attempts to interact with them verbally. It is MOST likely that Assad and Juana believe that _____ is the major contributor to their child’s development.

a. nurture

b. sensation training

c. nature

d. maturation

QUESTION 23 : Dr. Johan tends to believe in the _____ model of development, which says that changes occur at a relatively uniform pace. Dr. Ziback tends to believe in the _____ model, which says that there are periods of rapid and abrupt change that are separated by periods of very little change.

a. nurturing; natural

b. uniform; stop-start

c. continuity; stage

d. none of these options
QUESTION 24 : Which refers to development governed by automatic, genetically predetermined signals?

a. Elaboration

b. Natural progression

c. Maturation

d. Tabula rasa

QUESTION 25 : This is a period of special sensitivity to specific types of learning. It also shapes the capacity for future development.

a. Sensitivity period

b. Critical period

c. Specificity stage

d. Tabula rasa stage

QUESTION 26 : If you believe that your personality is developed early and can predict your personality later in life, then you believe in:

a. continuity

b. staging

c. stability

d. nurturing

QUESTION 27 : Today, most psychologists take _____ approach to human development.

a. a nativist

b. an empiricist

c. a dualist

d. an interactionist

QUESTION 28 :  An infant’s inborn disposition is known as _____.

a. personality

b. reflexes

c. temperament

d. traits

QUESTION 29 : Which of the following is one of Thomas and Chess’s temperament styles?

a. An easy child who is happy, relaxed, agreeable, adjusts readily

b. A difficult child who is moody, easily frustrated, tense, over-reactive

c. A child who is slow-to-warm-up, shy and withdrawn

d. All of the above
QUESTION 30 : Serena is one-month old and is not living up to her name. She is easily frustrated, tense, and reacts more than most infants when her schedule is upset. Thomas and Chess would categorize her as _____.

a. an easy baby

b. a difficult baby

c. an irritable child

d. a slow-to-warm-up baby

QUESTION 31 :  Which of the following is TRUE regarding basic temperament?

a. It tends to be consistent throughout early childhood and into adulthood.

b. It tends to change as children approach adolescence.

c. It tends to change as adolescents approach adulthood.

d. Changes are the result of maturation, rather than environment.
QUESTION 32 : Thomas and Chess’s concept of _____ says that parents should work with, not try to change, their child’s temperament.

a. trial and error

b. permissive parenting

c. justice and caring

d. goodness of fit

QUESTION 33 : Which of the following is NOT emphasized in Masters and Johnson’s model for sexual therapy?

a. Focus on the individual with the problem

b. Integration of physiological and psychosocial factors

c. Decreasing judgments and goal-setting

d. Homework assignments that include specific behaviors

QUESTION 34 : With regard to sexuality, spectatoring is the act of _____.

a. watching others engage in sex for the purpose of improving your own performance

b. videotaping yourself engaged in sex for the purpose of improving your future performance

c. mentally watching and evaluating responses during sex

d. watching pornographic videos to increase arousal and decrease inhibitions about sexuality

QUESTION 35 : If a psychologist wanted to compare a group of six-year-old children to a group of ten-year-old children at the same time on recognition memory performance, the psychologist would use the _____ method of data collection.

a. cross-sectional

b. naturalistic observation

c. longitudinal

d. cohort

QUESTION 36 : _____ research studies several groups of individuals at various ages, at one point in time, and provides information regarding _____.

a. Longitudinal; age differences

b. Cross-sectional; age differences

c. Longitudinal; age changes

d. Cross-sectional; age changes

QUESTION 37 : The _____ method of developmental data collection follows one person (or a single group of people) over time, and provides information about _____.

a. longitudinal; age changes

b. cross-sectional; age changes

c. cohort; age differences

d. longitudinal; age differences

QUESTION 38 : If a psychologist was interested in studying the stability of IQ scores over time, she should use the _____ method of data collection.

a. Test-retest

b. Longitudinal

c. Case history

d. Cross-sectional

QUESTION 39 :  _____ effects are a major problem found in cross-sectional research.

a. Subjective

b. Cohort

c. Objective

d. Longitudinal

QUESTION 40 : The results of a cross-sectional marketing study to determine how age affects people’s beliefs about family purchases and financial planning were criticized on the ground that the data was influenced by cohort effects. This means that _____.

a. some of the subjects belonged to ethnic minorities

b. the subjects were self-selected by their friends and neighbors

c. the older groups of subjects lived during the Depression

d. only 63% of the questionnaires were returned

QUESTION : Differences in age groups that reflect factors unique to a specific age group, rather than being due to developmental changes, are called _____ effects.

a. generational

b. social environmental

c. operational

d. cohort

QUESTION 42 : _____ studies are the most time efficient method, whereas _____ studies provide the most in-depth information per participant.

a. Correlational; experimental

b. Fast-track; follow-up

c. Cross-sectional; longitudinal

d. Cohort-sequential; cohort-intensive

QUESTION 43 : Someone who burns his country’s flag just because the law says he can is reasoning at the _____ stage of moral development; whereas someone who burns his country’s flag because he believes that his country has lost its legitimacy is reasoning at the _____ stage.

a. punishment and obedience; law and order

b. universal ethics; universal ethics

c. law and order; social contract

d. law and order; instrumental-exchange

QUESTION 44 : According to Kohlberg, an officer in the military is LEAST likely to obey orders to rape and pillage in a vanquished town if he has achieved the _____ orientation of moral reasoning.

a. good person

b. law and order

c. justice and caring

d. universal ethics

QUESTION 45 : Kohlberg’s second level of moral development, in which moral judgments are based on compliance with the rules and values of society, is called the:

a. postconventional

b. conventional

c. preconventional

d. universal ethics orientation

QUESTION 46 : Once an individual has accepted and internalized the rules and values of society, that person has advanced to the _____ level of moral development.

a. instrumental-exchange

b. social-contract

c. conventional

d. postconventional

QUESTION 47 : Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched?

a. Preconventional level: fear of punishment

b. Conventional level: other-centered

c. Postconventional: personal standards for right and wrong

d. All of these options are correctly matched

QUESTION 48 : Gilligan’s major criticism of Kohlberg’s stages of moral development is that they _____.

a. did not include the morality of the preverbal child, nor the very old

b. emphasized male values over female values

c. are too difficult for the average person to understand

d. predict behavior for women, but not for men

QUESTION 49 : This is a person’s innate behavioral style and characteristic emotional response.

a. Character

b. Personality

c. Behavioral style

d. Temperament

QUESTION 50 : Hilary and Clint are seeing a therapist for their sexual difficulties. Their homework assignment this week is to caress each other while communicating what is pleasurable to each of them, and to avoid setting any performance goals. This is called the _____ exercise.

a. Kegel

b. spectatoring

c. sensate focus

d. mutual massage

QUESTION 51 : Which of the following is considered helpful in improving your sexual functioning?

a. Early, open, and honest sex education

b. Setting clear goals during sexual encounters

c. Spectatoring to improve future performance

d. All of these options are helpful

QUESTION 52 : All other factors being equal, which of the following persons is MOST at risk for contracting a major sexually transmitted infection?

a. Martha, who is single and has multiple partners

b. Tom, who is married and monogamous

c. Susan, who is married and monogamous

d. George, who is single and has multiple partners

QUESTION 53 : Franklin tested HIV positive. This MOST likely means that he _____.

a. has AIDS

b. has been infected by one of the human immunodeficiency viruses

c. is immune to the AIDS virus

d. is a carrier of the AIDS virus, but not affected by it

QUESTION 54 : AIDS stands for _____.

a. Active Immune Disorder and Symptoms

b. Automatic Immunological Distress Syndrome

c. Auto-Immune Deficiency Syndrome

d. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

QUESTION 55 : Pamela’s immune system has been destroyed, leaving her body unable to fight disease and vulnerable to a variety of opportunistic infections and cancers. Pamela has _____, which started as _____.

a. HIV; an AIDS infection

b. AIDS; an HIV infection

c. bacterial AIDS; a viral infection

d. HIV; a bacterial AIDS infection

QUESTION 56 : This has been used as an independent variable in infant sensory-perceptual research.

a. Length of visual contact

b. Heart rate changes

c. Sucking rate changes

d. All of these options

QUESTION 57 : This refers to biological changes during adolescence that lead to an adult-sized body and sexual maturity.

a. 57. This refers to biological changes during adolescence that lead to an adult-sized body and sexual maturity.
a) the age of fertility
b) adolescence
c) puberty
d) the adolescent climacteric
b. adolescence
c. puberty
d. the adolescent climacteric
QUESTION 58 : _____ theories emphasize the importance of attributions and expectancies in motivating behaviors.

a. Attribution

b. Motivational

c. Achievement

d. Cognitive

QUESTION 59 : In Somalia, refugees often sacrificed their own safety in efforts to help others. This behavior refutes a basic premise of which theory of motivation?

a. Incentive theory

b. Drive-reduction theory

c. Maslow’s theory

d. Cognitive theory

QUESTION 60 : Hunger, arousal, and achievement are three basic _____.

a. emotions

b. feelings

c. responses

d. motives

QUESTION 61 : What role does the stomach play in feelings of hunger?

a. Pressure receptors in the stomach walls signal fullness or emptiness.

b. Stomach contractions signal the brain that it is time to eat again.

c. Fullness receptors and stomach contractions both play a role.

d. None of these options

QUESTION 62 : The feeling of fullness you get once you have ingested enough food is called _____.

a. bloating

b. gastrointestinal fullness

c. insatiety

d. satiety

QUESTION 63 : When the lateral hypothalamus is destroyed, animals will _____.

a. stop eating, and must be force-fed

b. overeat to obesity

c. become picky eaters

d. any of these options

QUESTION 64 : When the ventromedial hypothalamus is destroyed or lesioned, animals will _____.

a. overeat to the point of extreme obesity

b. become picky about what they eat

c. experience an increase in insulin

d. all of these options

QUESTION 65 :  The brain’s “”eating center”” is found _____.

a. in the hypothalamus

b. throughout the brain

c. in the lateral thalamus

d. in the ventromedial thalamus

QUESTION 66 : If you follow the traffic laws and rules because you believe they are legitimate and good for public welfare, you are demonstrating the _____ stage of moral development.

a. punishment and obedience

b. law and order

c. social contract

d. instrumental-exchange
QUESTION 67 :  The germinal period _____.

a. 67. The germinal period _____.begins with fetal weight gain

b. begins with implantation

c. is the time it takes to germinate your answer to this question

d. begins at fertilization and ends with implantation

QUESTION 68 : This is the first stage of prenatal development (from conception to implantation), characterized by rapid cell division.

a. Embryonic

b. Fetal stage

c. Critical period

d. Germinal period

QUESTION 69 :  From implantation through the 8th week, the major body organs and systems develop. This period of pregnancy is called:

a. Embryonic

b. Fetal

c. Zygotic

d. Germinal

QUESTION 70 : The fetal period lasts from _____.

a. conception to birth

b. implantation to birth

c. implantation to 8 weeks

d. 8 weeks to birth
QUESTION 71 : Jeremy was born with serious heart, face, and finger deformities. He is also showing signs of delayed motor development and lowered intelligence. Jeremy is most likely suffering from _____.

a. DNA syndrome

b. premature birth

c. fetal alcohol syndrome

d. prenatal exposure to nicotine

QUESTION 72 : Which of the following is CORRECT regarding brain development?

a. The weight of an infant’s brain is half that of an adult’s and it reaches full adult weight by age 16.

b. The number of neurons in the infant brain at birth is about one-eighth the number in the adult brain.

c. Axon and dendrite connections increase.

d. Myelination peaks at age 12.

QUESTION 73 :  The first motor movements a newborn exhibits are _____.

a. unimportant for survival

b. innate and voluntary

c. involuntary reflexes elicited by external stimuli

d. all of these options

QUESTION 74 : The first motor movements a newborn exhibits are limited to _____.

a. bowel movements

b. “”mewling and puking””

c. fine motor movements

d. reflexes

QUESTION 75 : At birth, the sense of ________ is poorly developed.

a. hearing

b. smell

c. touch

d. vision

QUESTION 76 : Synaptic pruning refers to the _____ that helps strengthen connection between neurons.

a. decrease in myelinated synapses

b. decrease in the gap between neurons, due to dendrite enlargement

c. reduction of axons

d. natural reduction of unused synapses

QUESTION 77 : Because myelination of the brain continues until early adulthood, _____ continues to increase as well.

a. neuron generation

b. the speed of neural impulses

c. teratogenesis

d. the blood-brain barrier

QUESTION 78 : Which of the following sensory systems is MOST poorly developed at birth?

a. Taste

b. Smell

c. Vision

d. Touch

QUESTION 79 : Which of the following is NOT true regarding infant sensory and perceptual development?

a. Vision is almost 20/20 at birth.

b. A newborn’s sense of pain is highly developed at birth.

c. An infant can recognize, and prefers, its own mother’s breast milk by smell.

d. An infant can recognize, and prefers, its own mother’s breast milk by taste.

QUESTION 80 : Using Fantz’s “”looking chamber,”” researchers have found that infants prefer _____.

a. complex patterns

b. simple patterns

c. mothers

d. fathers

QUESTION 81 : _____ refers to one’s biological state of being male or female.

a. Gender identity

b. Sex

c. Gender role

d. Gender

QUESTION 82 :  _____ refers to the psychological and sociocultural meanings added to the biological state of being male or female.

a. Sex differences

b. Gender

c. Sexual role

d. Gender role

QUESTION 83 : Sex: gender: _____.

a. biological: psychological/sociocultural

b. psychology: biology

c. sociocultural: biological

d. chromosomal: anatomical/biological

QUESTION 84 : Pat has an XY chromosome pattern and likes to play with trucks. The XY pattern is characteristic of Pat’s _____, and playing with trucks is characteristic of his _____.

a. sex; gender

b. gender; sex

c. masculinity; maleness

d. identity; orientation

QUESTION 85 : Your _____ is related to societal expectations for “”normal and appropriate”” behavior for your biological sex.

a. gender identity

b. gender role

c. sexual identity

d. sexual orientation

QUESTION 86 : Eva Marie has learned that society expects girls to play with dolls rather than trucks. This means that she understands her _____.

a. sexual orientation

b. gender schema

c. gender role

d. gender

QUESTION 87 : The female gonads are the _____; the male gonads are the _____.

a. vagina; penis

b. ovaries; testes

c. ovaries; testes

d. all of these options
QUESTION 88 : The hormonal dimension of sex is defined as the predominance of _____ for females and _____ for males.

a. testosterone; estrogens

b. estrogens; androgens

c. progesterone; estrogens

d. testosterone; androgens
QUESTION 89 : The prostate gland is an internal organ in the _____; the fallopian tube is an internal organ in the _____.

a. female; female

b. female; male

c. male; male

d. male; female

QUESTION 90 : Social learning theory suggests that children learn gender roles _____.

a. by watching and imitating others

b. through rewards for gender-appropriate behaviors

c. through punishment for gender-inappropriate behavior

d. all of these options

QUESTION 91 : Gender schemas are associated with which theory of gender role development?

a. Cognitive-developmental

b. Social learning theory

c. Observational theory

d. Both a and b

QUESTION 92: The belief that children actively create internal rules about appropriate gender behavior is consistent with _____.
a. biopsychosocial theory

b. the androgyny hypothesis

c. social learning theory

d. gender schema theory

QUESTION 93 : Your self-identification as either a man or woman is called your _____.

a. sex perception

b. perceptual gender

c. sex role

d. gender identity

QUESTION 94 : Amanda knows she is a girl, which means she has acquired _____.

a. her primary sexual identity

b. gender constancy

c. a gender identity

d. a gender role

QUESTION 95 : Individuals who have the genitals and secondary sex characteristics of one sex, but feel as if they belong to the other sex, are known as _____.
a. transvestites

b. heterosexuals

c. gays or lesbians

d. transsexuals

QUESTION 96 : Bradford wears female clothing because it is sexually arousing. Billy wears female clothing because he believes he is female and wants others to perceive him this way. Bradford is an example of _____, whereas Billy is an example of _____.

a. transsexualism; cross-dressing

b. a female impersonator; someone “”going in drag””

c. transvestitism; transsexualism

d. transvestitism; cross-dressing

QUESTION 97: Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched?

a. transvestite: homosexual

b. transsexual: bisexual

c. sexual orientation: gender identity

d. none of the above

QUESTION 98 : A person who is erotically attracted to members of the same sex is called _____.

a. unisexual

b. gender confused

c. gay or lesbian

d. transsexual or homosexual

QUESTION 99 : Your primary erotic attraction toward others is referred to as your _____.

a. gender identity

b. sexual identity

c. sexual orientation

d. any of these options

QUESTION 100 :A individual who engages in both heterosexual and homosexual relations is referred to as _____.

a. bisexual

b. lesbian

c. transsexual



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